RAJASTHAN RAJYA VIDYUT UTPADAN NIGAM LTD AE EXAM DATE ,ADMIT CARD AND INFORMATION ABOUT EXAM PATTERN AND SAMPLE QUESTIONS

ADMIT CARD AND EXAM DATE-RAJASTHAN RAJYA VIDYUT UTPADAN NIGAM LTD HAVE ISSUED ADMIT CARD FOR Recruitment of Assistant Engineers (Electrical/ Mechanical/ Civil/ C&I/ Fire & Safety),which Online Exam will be held on 22.11.2016.

INFORMATION HANDOUT
On-line Examination – Recruitment
of
Assistant Engineer (Electrical),
Assistant Engineer (Mechanical), Assistant Engineer (Civil), Assistant Engineer
(Control & Instrumentation), Assistant Engineer (Fire & Safety)
INFORMATION HANDOUT
This
handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you
are going to undertake and important instructions about related matters. You
are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in preparing for
the examination.
The
on-line examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice
tests as stated below :
Sr.
Test
No. of
Marks
Time
No.
Questions
1
Reasoning & Mental Ability
70
35
2
General Knowledge & Everyday
Science
30
15
Composite
3
General Hindi
30
15
Time
of
4
General English
30
15
120
minutes
5
Mathematics
40
20
Total
200
100
*TEST PAPER
WILL BE “OMNIBUS”, WITHOUT CREATING ANY SECTION/SUB-SECTION IN THE
TEST PAPER
The
time for the test is 120 minutes; however you may have to be at the venue for
approximately 180 minutes including the time required for logging in,
collection of the call letters, going through the instructions etc. All tests
except test of General Hindi will be in English. You can attempt any question
at any point of time within these 120 minutes. All the questions will have
multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the
correct answer. You have to select the most appropriate answer and
‘mouse
click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/correct. The alternative/
option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that
question. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For every
wrong answer marked by you, 1/4 of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
The
Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following
procedure :
(i)     
Number of questions answered correctly by
a candidate is considered for arriving at the Corrected Score after applying
penalty for wrong answers.
(ii)    
The Corrected Scores so obtained by a
candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference in
difficulty level, if any, held in different sessions to arrive at the Equated
Scores*
*Scores
obtained by candidates are equated to the base form by considering the
distribution of scores of all the forms.
(iii)   Scores are reported with decimal
points upto two digits.
Please
note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not
exhaustive. In the actual examination you will find questions of a higher
difficulty level on some or all of these types and also questions on the types
not mentioned here.




SAMPLE QUESTIONS
REASONING & MENTAL
ABILITY
This is a test to see how well you can think. It
contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Q.1.   Some
leaders are dishonest.  Satyapriya is a
leader.  Which of the following
inferences definitely
follows
from these two statements ?
(1)
Satyapriya is
honest
(2)
Satyapriya is
dishonest
(3)
Some leaders are
honest
(4)
Leaders are generally dishonest
(5)
Satyapriya is
sometimes dishonest
Q.2.   If the first and
the second letters in the word ‘DEPRESSION’ were interchanged, also the third
and the fourth letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which of the
following would be the seventh
letter
from the right ?
(1)  R
(2)  O
(3)  S
(4)  I
(5)  Other than those given as
options
Q.3-5.     Read
the information given below and answer the questions.
Six
plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on each
day from Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance
with the following.
(1)  
A must be on the immediately previous day
of the on which E is staged.
(2)  
C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(3)  
B must be on a day which immediately
follows the day on which F is staged.
(4)  
D
must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(5)  
E
must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Q.3.   Which of the following is the
schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(1)  E A B F D C         (2) 
A F B E D C                                         (3)  A F B C D E
(4)  F A B E D C         (5) 
Other than those given as options
Q.4.   Play C cannot definitely be staged
on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday ?
(1)
Monday
(2)
Wednesday
(3)
Thursday
(4)
Friday
(5)
Saturday
Q.5.   Play D is between which of the
following pairs of plays
(1)
C and E
(2)
E and F
(3)
A and E
(4)
B and E
(5)
C and F
Q.6.   If in a code
language “de pom jo”means “meet him tomorrow”, “ren pom gol” means “I meet
you”, :gol joma sora” means “you go there” and “ren bem jo” means “I like him”,
then how will “you like tomorrow” be written in that code language ?
(1)
sora de gol
(2)
jo gol sora
(3)  jo de sora
(4)
gol bem de
(5)
Other than those
given as options
Q.7.   If ‘A#B’ means ‘A is brother of B’
If ‘A$B’ means
‘B is father of A’
If ‘A%B’ means ‘A is mother of B’
If ‘A@B’ means ‘B is sister of A’
Then which of the following means
‘X’ is maternal uncle of ‘Y’ ?
(1)
Y#M%C$X
(2)  X@C%M#Y
(3)  Y%C$M#X
(4)
X@C$M#Y
(5)  Other than those given as options
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE &
EVERYDAY SCIENCE
This test is intended to give an index of your
awareness of people and events past and present in different walks of life.
Q.1.
Which of the
following sectors contributes maximum in deciding the growth in income of the
states
in India ?
(1)  Energy
(2)  Tourism
(3)  Service
(4)  Transport
(5)  Agriculture
Q.2.
In which of the
following  states is the number of
people living below poverty line the maximum ?
(1)  Bihar
(2)  Andhra Pradesh
(3)  Uttar Pradesh
(4)  Rajasthan
(5)  Orissa
Q.3.     Why
we cannot see the objects in the dark ?
(1)  
These objects emit light
(2)  
These objects absorb light
(3)  
There is no light coming to our eyes from
these objects
(4)  
The light gets obstructed by the
darkness.
(5)  
Other than those given as options
Q.4.     Which
of the following samples of water can be termed as pure water ?
(1)
Water in which
alum is added
(2)
Clean water
(3)  Filtered water
(4)
No other
substance added to it
(5)
Other than those
given as options

GENERAL HINDI
This
is a test to see how will you ‘Know’ Hindi. Your Hindi Language ability would
be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion,
synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc.
GENERAL ENGLISH
This
is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would
be tested through questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms,
sentence completion, comprehension of a pas-sage etc.
Direction : Pick
out the most appropriate word from the words given below each sentence to
complete it meaningfully.
Q.1.
Continuous
unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most
depressing.
(1)
laziness
(2)  encouragement
(3)  satisfaction
(4)  anger
(5) 
awakening
Q.2.
He neglects
attending lectures though college is quite ___________ his house.
(1)
far
(2)  away
(3)  further
(4)  near
(5) 
distant
Directions
:
Read
each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that
part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No
error’.
Q.3.    Most
of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem/
(1)
(2)
(3)
in varying
degrees. /
No error.
(4)
(5)
Q.4.    The regaining of freedom / as we well
know has given rise for / many dormant issues /
(1)
(2)
(3)
and conflicts in our society.
No error.
(4)
(5)
In addition to the above questions, there may be a
passage in Hindi Comprehension. You will be asked question based on the
passage.
MATHEMATICS
This is a test designed to see how fast and
accurately you can deal with numbers viz. computation, quantitative reasoning,
interpretation of data etc. Also, there may be some questions based on graphs
and tables.
Q.1.   If the profit made by selling a pen
for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1)  Rs.3/-         (2) 
Rs.5/-      (3)  Rs.10      (4) 
Rs.20/-    (5)  Other than those given as options
Q.2.    Sohanlal purchased
120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The expenditure on transport was Rs.480.
He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were
Rs.60. What should be the selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of
20% ?
(1)  Rs.126  (2) 
Rs.115.50  (3)  Rs.105  
(4)  Rs. 120   (5) 
Other than those given as options
Directions
Q.3. :
Given below is a table showing percentages out of a
total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that help promotion. Rank
I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that follow :
Attribute
% of Employees Giving Different
Ranks
I
II
III
IV
V
VI
Seniority
32
17
22
19
5
5
Perseverance
14
19
17
9
27
14
Efficiency
15
19
21
14
14
17
Intelligence
10
14
10
14
17
35
Honesty
24
17
7
9
27
16
Sociability
5
14
23
35
10
13
Q.3.   Which
attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) 
Perseverance      (2)  Seniority           (3)  Honesty            (4)  Sociability    (5)  Efficiency


(A)      
Details of the On-line Examination
Pattern
(1)      
The examination would be conducted
on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2)      
All tests, except test of General Hindi,
will be in English.
(3)      
All the questions will have multiple
choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct
answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse
click’
that alternative which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The
alternative/ option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that
question. Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only
when candidates have submitted the answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or
“Mark for Review & Next”.
(4)      
The clock has been set at the server and
the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display the
time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam
ends by default – you are not required to end or submit your exam.
(5)      
The question palette at the right of
screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the questions numbered:
You have not visited the
question yet.
You have not answered the
question.
You have answered the question.
You have NOT answered the question
but have marked the question for review.
You have answered the question but
marked it for review.
The Marked for Review
status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question
again. If an answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review,
the answer will be considered
in the final evaluation.
(6)      
To
select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a)     
Click on the question number on the
question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered question
directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.
(b)     
Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save
answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c)     
Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’
to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to the next
question in sequence.
(7)      
To
select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
(8)      
To
change your answer, click another desired option button.
(9)      
To
save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(10)    
To deselect a chosen answer, click on the
chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.
(11)    
To mark a question for review click on Mark
for Review & Next
. If an answer is selected for a question
that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final
evaluation.
(12)    
To change an answer to a question, first
select the question and then click on the new answer option followed by a click
on the Save & Next button.
(13)    
Questions that are saved or marked
for review after answering will ONLY be considered for evaluation.
(14)    
Sections will be displayed on the top bar
of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the section
name. The section you will view will be highlighted.
(15)    
After clicking the Save & Next
button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to
the first question of the next section.
(16)    
You can move the mouse cursor over the
section names to view the status of the questions for that section.
(17)    
You can shuffle between sections and
questions anytime during the examination as per your convenience.
(18)    
The candidates are requested to follow
the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate does
not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of
misconduct/ adoption of unfair means and such a candidate would be liable for
debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as decided by RRVUN.
(19)    
The candidates may ask the Test Administrator
about their doubts or questions only before the commencement of the test. No
query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.
(20)    
After the expiry of 120 minutes, the
candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers. The
answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system
even if he/ she has not clicked the “Submit” button.
(21)    
Please note :
(a)      
Candidates will not be allowed to
“finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time.
(b)      
Under no circumstances should a
candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the exam starts as this will
lock the exam.
B]      General
Instructions:
(1)    
Please
note date, time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2)    
You may visit the venue one day before
the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you are able to report on
time
(as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Late
comers will not be allowed.
(3)    
The call letter should be brought with
you to the examination venue along with your recent passport size photograph
duly pasted on it.
(4)    
You must scrupulously follow the
instructions of the Test Administrator and RRVUN Representative at the
examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and
will be asked to leave the examination venue.
(5)    
No use of calculators (separate or with
watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones (with or without camera
facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the
examination.
(6)    
Please bring the call letter with your
photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity proof in original
and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original – THIS IS
ESSENTIAL. Please hand over the call-letter alongwith photocopy of photo
identity proof duly stapled together to the invigilator. Currently valid photo
identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/ Voter’s Card/Bank
Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on
official letterhead /Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative
on official letterhead/ Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognised
College/University/Aadhar Card/e-adhar Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar
Council Identity card with photograph. Please Note – Ration Card will
NOT be accepted as valid ID proof for this project.
Please note that your
name as appearing on the call letter (provided by you during the process
of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo
identity proof. Female candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post
marriage must take special note of this. If there is any mismatch between the
name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you will not be
allowed to appear for the exam. In case of candidates who have changed their
name will be allowed only if they produce Gazette notification/their marriage
certificate/affidavit


(7)    
Biometric data (thumb impression and
photograph) will be captured at the examination venue. With regards to the
same, please note the following :
(a)   
If fingers are coated (stamped
ink/mehndi/coloured…etc), ensure to thoroughly wash them so that coating is
completely removed before the exam day.
(b)   
If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to
wash them and dry them before the finger print (biometric) is captured.
(c)   
Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If
fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry it.
(d)   
If the primary finger (left thumb) to be
captured is injured/damaged, immediately notify the concerned authority in the
test centre.
(Any failure to observe
these points will result in non-admittance for the examination)
(8)    
Your responses (answers) will be analysed
with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and wrong
answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/
concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not
genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found
copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour
unbecoming of a candidate will not be considered for assessment. RRVUN may take
further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
(9)    
You should bring with you a ball-point
pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used for rough work or
taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test
before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this
sheet of paper to the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(10) 
The possibility of occurrence of some
problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out completely
which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that
event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include
movement of candidates, delay in test. Conduct of a re-exam is at the absolute
discretion of test conducting body. Candidates will not have any claim for a
re-test. Candidates not willing to move or not willing to participate in the
delayed process of test delivery shall be summarily rejected from the process.
(11) 
If the examination is held in more than
one session, the scores across various sessions will be equated to adjust for
slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or
some technical disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(12)  Anyone found to be
disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating
transmission and storage of test contents in any form or any information
therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal or written, electronic
or mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or
found to be in unauthorised possession of test content is likely to be
prosecuted.
(13) 
Instances for providing incorrect
information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of
the selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the
selection process and he/she will not be allowed to appear in any recruitment
process of the Vidyut Nigam in the future. If such instances go undetected
during the current selection process but are detected subsequently, such
disqualification will take place with retrospective affect.
IMPORTANT POINTS
TO REMEMBER
You are advised to
bring with you the following:
(i)     Call
letter with photo affixed thereon and photo ID card in Original and
photocopy as mentioned in point 6.
(ii)   
One Ball point pen.
WISH YOU GOOD LUCK


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